A user asked this question on karma and rape on Hinduism SE but it was heavily downvoted by users, then closed and deleted. Users there argued that such questions justify rape. I on the other hand thought it's a philosophical question on how the karma theory actually works and closing/deleting such questions because it might reflect badly on the religion is censorship.
Title: Are both pleasure experienced by a rapist and the pain by the victim the result of their previous karma?
Body: Is it really possible for someone to merely wish to perform papa (or punya) and then proceed to do it? E.g., if one person likes to do papa, he can go and rape a woman. However, the desire to rape someone should also arise. If he has the opportunity to rape someone but doesn't have the desire, it won't work. So, both the situation and the desire should arise.
Scripture says each and every situation is due to karma phala (karmic reward). One cannot harm another person who doesn't have that kind of papa in their account (e.g., a girl's karma account in case of a rape). If a man really has the opportunity and the desire to rape a girl it simply means that the girl's karma phala is allowing the act of rape to happen.
Also, according to scripture, each and every enjoyment presupposes punya and at the time of rape, if one gets pleasure it must be due to his previously accumulated punya. Without punya, he cannot really enjoy the act. So is he really committing a sin and gaining new papa or simply using up the punya already in his account?
If I were to ask the same question on this site, will it be allowed or closed/deleted for the same reason?
I also noticed this site doesn't have the karma tag. Is there any particular reason for this?